I'm just diving into music theory having largely ignored it in my playing up until now. I believe I've got the basics down of how to move modes around the finger board. But, there is some "confusing" information online that has me questioning how this all works at a theoretical level.
So I understand that if I'm in a given key (lets say D minor). I lay my 7 notes out and return to the root
- D
- E
- F
- G
- A
- A#
- C
- D
I then know that if I want to start my sequence on the E (which being the second note, would be Dorian?) my order then becomes
- E
- F
- G
- A
- A#
- C
- D
- E
This makes sense to me so far, I just swap tonic notes, but the key is the same as before. No additional sharps/flats added. I also then can keep this pattern on the finger board and apply it to other minor keys later on.
My confusion arises when I see something like this in many places online:
The phrygian mode contains – b2, b3, b6 ,b7
This might be where the gap in my theory presents itself, but I see that statement, and then I look at all the modes I could make using that D minor example and I only have an A# that isn't a natural note.
Each mode appears to have its own set of sharps/flats but in actual practice within that D Minor aren't the notes supposed to remain the same?
Just trying to ensure I've got the right grasp on this as I'm keen to try and incorporate an understanding of "why" into my playing. Apologize if some of this is blatantly obvious to others.