Hot answers tagged

11

One of the things my first piano teacher taught me when looking at Bach was to isolate the voices and play the parts by themselves to get to know how the individual lines sounded like, not just their congregation. Because we are limited to only two hands of five fingers only, we have to make some sacrifices sometimes, as you correctly noted. In your example, ...


8

The short, general answer All things (all voices) being equal, solution #1 is the correct technical approach. The shorter note should interrupt the longer one, but then continue to be held (allowing for additional interruptions) for the duration of the longest note.1,2 Solution #2 is appropriate in some situations (see below). Solution #3 is never ...


6

Is it technically correct or incorrect to express one voice using two? No it does not really matter technically, either works. Is one more readable than another? They both are readable, and in my opinion, option 1 is better but probably even better would be a combination, which would be just like option 1, but has a quarter rest on beat two in voice 1. ...


6

It seems that you may be conflating phrasing slurs with ties. Ties and slurs are notated similarly, but the context determines what is intended. Ties in this style will only ever connect two of the exact same notes, and there will not be any intervening pitches; instead, the tie's purpose is to lengthen the duration of a pitch you are currently playing. ...


5

Ankit got it right, I would only like to add another possibility. For me (as a classical guitarist), putting it into two voices would be the way to go. I would also typeset the G with stem up and the C and E with stems down, like this: (I like the second bar more. Also sorry for the huge image, sadly all images get stretched to the width of the post.) By ...


5

You occasionally see this sort of thing in ensemble music where the chord changes but one instrument holds the same note. Unnecessary, but might add just a LITTLE useful information. This, for instance: But, most likely, it's just sloppy notation.


5

Both notations are exactly equivalent, so I see no reason for the conclusion to play something differently just because notation is different. I can only guess, that in the next bar more changes happen (eg. change of note for second half of bar), and this notation is the chosen method for indicating it early.


5

The textbook Music Notation: A Manual of Modern Practice by Gardner Read answers your first question as follows: When slurs are placed over a passage that ends in a tied note, the slur sign should extend as far as the second note of the tie, rather than end of the first note. The principle involved should be obvious; the breath of the singer or wind ...


3

It's definitely a slur from the A to the G♮, and for at least a few reasons: The beginning of this slur/tie is above the initial E. Engravers make mistakes, but that's a hard mistake to rationalize. The first edition of the score makes it pretty clear that the A on beat 1 ultimately moves to the F♯ in the next measure, thereby connecting this ...


2

They are not ties. They are slurs. It just means play then legato. Note that the bottom notes are also held longer, suggesting a melody in the bass.


2

The tie is irrelevant to understanding the notation. If you have a figure part way through the duration of a long note, you play the new chord but you don't repeat the bass note. That is very a common notation - for example 64 53 figures over the dominant at a cadence. The only reason for the tie is that modern notation conventions don't have any other ...


2

Your first guesses are correct: you hold the C in the bass between measure 1 and 2, and from measure 2 to measure 3, the C in the bass is held over, and the chord remains the same, C, F, Ab. Btw- "Es" in English is "Eb".


2

I'd go generally with 2.2. The fermata position is often dictated by what else is going on in the music. If everybody is to come off at the same time after the pause, then put it on the last note. But if there's something that needs to happen before everyone counts the crotchet a tempo (eg a bit of recitative, a breath, a bit of shady side-eye) then put it ...


2

Unlike what some of the answers and comments state, there is a reason why one could include a slur within a slur (1.1). In jazz, it is common to combine "licks" into slurred sections. I play tenor saxophone and frequently encounter passages like that (one example that comes to mind is the Pink Panther theme). According to my teacher, it means that the first ...


2

The tenuto mark is there to inform the player that the curve connecting the two notes is not a tie but a slur -- a bowing mark. This is two notes to be played without reversing the direction in which the bow is traveling.


2

You'll notice that ties are drawn much more closely to the note heads. There is no tie in the red circle, but there is in the blue one. For multiple notes to be tied, for each note tied a separate curve is drawn.


2

I'm writing another answer, after reading the comments, and doing some research. I am going to delete my previous answer, as I now realize it's misleading. The measure comes from an arrangement of part of March no. 1 from "Pomp and Circumstance" by Edward Elgar. If the book doesn't mention it, it's not good. Elgar composed the marches for an ...


2

Whilst it looks like a tie, it must be a slur, which ought to be over the top notes rather than under it all. It seems to be a poor example of writing, as there doesn't need any tie to be there; the first C could have been written as a minim, with the stem down, indicating a different voice, which it should be anyway. Were the first C only a quaver, it could'...


1

Certainly not 3. We mustn't hear a note struck that isn't in the music. 1. seems about right. At a faster tempo it might tend towards 2.


1

It's the same thing. Even if the author uses a single dotted half note like you have suggested, it won'y make any difference to how the piece sounds. However, if you had posted some more from the piece like next few bars, we could analyse more and come into a better conclusion as to why this notation is specifically used.


1

In this age of FINALE and other such notation software, I suspect many people use default settings while hyperscribing and either accept what the computer discerns or they become blind to these things when editing. I think this is a case where the computer made the decision to tie the notes based upon some factor of the arrangers playing and they never ...


1

If the notation works in bars 1 and 2, can't see why it wasn't the same for bars 3 and 4. B♭ gets held for 2 bars, then G gets held for 2 bars. Pointless writing!


1

I never thought about not playing it, because every performer I have seen/heared playing this piece always played this note as well. As you say in your comment to Tim both figures are identical: and also in the next bar 24 we have the same motif. It’s both bars. Same pattern at the end. Now the question is, how am I supposed to know when to play ...


1

That last E is definitely not tied to the one before it in that second bar shown. If it was, the 'tie' line would start below the first E. It's a slur line, referring to the A>G♯>G♮ chromatic run. Also, since both Es are shown with stems down, it would have made more sense to write a dotted minim at the beginning, had it supposedly been a note ...


1

The only tie shown is between the two G note (3rd and 4th). The lines are slurs - phrasings. The bass clef has stems up and down to show that the 1st, 3rd and 5th notes are held longer than they would be with only up stems. It's written as a three part tune - treble clef os top, bass clef/stems up is middle, and bass clef stems down the lowest of the three. ...


1

I don’t see a difference between examples 1.1. and 1.2. As you say there are only tied notes and no phrase slurs all notes have to be played legato. The other 3 examples mean each something different. You can’t say that one of them is wrong. If this a solo without other musicians and no conductor you can’t hear any difference. I would prefer to notate the ...


1

Number 1.1 and 1.2 would mean the same thing. At least I would play it exactly the same way. Number 1.2 is how it would most often be written. Number 2.1 would mean you hold a fermata on the 4th beat in the 1st bar and then continue playing the C in the next bar. Number 2.2 would mean you hold a fermata on the 1st beat in the second bar. Number 2.3 would ...


Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible